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DavesNotHere's avatar

Preventing someone from trespassing on my property is not necessarily a harm. When is it a harm? When should that override my property right?

All roads and other transportation infrastructure belong to someone. If they all unanimously refuse to allow Marvin to use their infrastructure to pursue his needs, can we say they have harmed him? How many or few options does Marvin need access to for their refusal to count as harm? So long as he has one viable effective alternative, other refusals might count as inconvenient but not harmful.

Only when all gatekeepers, however many there may be, agree that Marvin can’t pass would the harm take place. But this seems odd. If there are 100 alternatives, whether or not they are responsible for the harm depends on what others, perhaps one other, have done, not what each have done themselves. If I refuse and someone else allows Marvin to pass, I have done no harm. If no one else accepts him, we have all done harm. But only one person has done something different.

J.C. Lester has tried to address some of these questions in his book Escape from Leviathan. E.g., someone escaping from a natural disaster has a right to trespass. I am not entirely satisfied by his account, though my criticisms are too vague to include here. I prefer to think that disaster victims are still liable for trespassing, or any other torts they create, and should compensate the victim if a dispute results. But that leads to further questions: what sorts of defense am I entitled to raise against such trespassers? If I am obligated to allow them to pass, what is the basis of my obligation?

Bernard Gert's framework might be relevant, in that he allows that rules can be broken in emergencies if done “publicly.” I was not able to satisfy myself as to exactly what that involves, but I assume it means that many people know about the violation and regard it as a valid exception to the rule. Is Marvin facing an emergency?

Perhaps if I knew more about ethical intuitionism I would be able to answer all these questions.

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Simon Lucas's avatar

You suggest that the club analogy "proves too much," implying that any constraints a private club may impose on membership would also be legitimate for the state. However, this is not what the analogy implies. Rather, it illustrates that just as individuals and private associations have the right to determine with whom they associate and whom they admit as members, states likewise have a right to political self-determination.

The right to free association is a robust liberty right that significantly limits the scope of unrestricted movement—whether it be an individual entering my home or an immigrant crossing national borders. Given that different liberal rights inherently constrain one another, state self-determination arguably serves as a crucial mechanism for resolving coordination problems that arise in the absence of predefined metaphysical limits to these rights.

Admittedly, certain grounds for exclusion may be morally questionable and reflect poorly on those invoking them. However, we generally extend similar liberty rights to individuals—for instance, when someone refuses a marriage proposal for explicitly racist reasons. At the same time, there are also strong justifications for exclusion, particularly when it serves to safeguard the foundational principles of liberal democracy, foster social cohesion, and preserve local cultures—all of which contribute to social meaning and stability.

Your Marvin example, on the other hand, approaches cases where the right to exclude reaches its limits—namely, individuals seeking to cross national borders under conditions of imminent threat, such as political dissidents or members of persecuted ethnic, religious, or sexual minorities. Excluding such individuals would arguably exceed the moral boundaries of free association and be ethically indefensible, much like it would be impermissible to deny entry to someone seeking refuge in my home if they were severely injured and in urgent need of medical assistance.

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