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Kei's avatar
Sep 14Edited

I think you are misrepresenting the statistic in the Bloomberg article, although that's partly the fault of the author of the article. The 6% statistic refers to the fractional net change in employees rather than the fraction of those that were hired. There was a net change of 320k employees, that is 320k more people were hired than who quit or were fired. Simultaneously, there was a net change of 20k for non-hispanic white employees. You can see they are talking about net change rather than new hires by looking at their breakout on change by level of employee, which includes saying there are 19k fewer non-hispanic white employees in less-senior roles.

The main thing this statistic shows is that people hired in 2021 were less often non-hispanic white than the people who quit or were fired. How much less? By a rough estimate about 52% of people who left and 48% of people who were hired were non-hispanic white. I list the details of my estimate below:

The Bloomberg article says that there were 9 million people working at Fortune 100 companies in their dataset. Let's assume 1/3 of them, or 3 million employees, left in 2021, and x% of those who left were non-hispanic white. There is a chart in the article that shows the current racial breakdown by job type. Eyeballing it, it looks like ~52% of current employees are non-hispanic white. I'll assume that the racial breakdown of employees leaving the company matches their current composition, and so x = 52. Since the companies grew by a net of 320k employees, they hired 3 million + 320k = 3.32 million employees in 2021, of which y% were white. We can solve for y using the equation 3.32y - 3*.52 = .02. Solving, we get y = 48.

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Marlon's avatar

In your book Ethical Intuitionism, you argue the following against Subjectivism: "Its main problem is one of circularity: to know what it is for something to be believed to be F, we must first know what F is. A related problem is the infinite regress: if [x is good] = [I believe x is good], then [I believe x is good] = [I believe (I believe x is good)], and so on.

In general, it is incoherent to postulate a proposition whose truth would consist solely in your believing it. The same point applies to the view that to be good is to be believed to be good by society, or by God, or by anyone else, and the same applies if we substitute 'perceived', 'known', 'asserted', or any other verb for 'believed'. The word 'good' should not appear within the explanation of what it is for x to be good." Do you agree these objections are relevant to some of the concepts of what it is to be a woman in trans-inclusive feminist philosophy?

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