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Maxim Lott's avatar

The strongest argument is a permutation of #3, which goes like:

Black people experience racism, and as a result, a black applicant with a 1400 SAT score actually has more innate talent than a white applicant with the same score, and could therefore contribute more to society if those talents were fully supported.

A related case is if an impoverished and rich student both have a 1400 SAT. It's pretty obvious that the same accomplishment took more innate talent for the poor kid, and therefore I'd let that one in.

I suspect that empirically, disadvantage in society due to race is pretty minor today (could even be negative) but certainly 50 years ago one would expect it to be positive, maybe strongly so. But it's worth people studying what it is.

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DavesNotHere's avatar

I like your arguments against reparations, but I’m not sure how much is due to their virtues and how much is due to the fact that they confirm my biases.

“When people commit a wrongful act, they are only responsible for the reasonably foreseeable harms”

That seems awkwardly worded to me. If the act is definitely wrongful, it doesn’t matter whether the harm is foreseeable or not. If it’s wrong, no one should do it.

On the other hand, in a very practical legal system, I imagine that wrongful acts would not be prosecuted if no plaintiff came forward complaining of harm. Instead of having the state prosecute crimes as the plaintiff, plaintiffs would need to be actual victims of harm in order to have standing in court.

The complication here is that the acts we are discussing mostly happened 100 years or more ago, were not considered wrongful at the time, and the persons who actually committed the acts are all dead. We now consider society as a whole to have made a mistake, but it’s not clear how we should compensate victims of such social mistakes, who should pay the compensation, or how to determine who is owed compensation.

Questions regarding determining who should pay compensation or how the funds should be raised, at least, are vaguely analogous to existing public debt. In both cases, later generations are held liable for debts incurred by previous generations.

But even that nice precedent is not obviously just. One could argue that the government would be justified in incurring debt when making investment expenditures that will generate benefits far into the future, on a rough pay as you go basis. There doesn’t seem to be much evidence that this argument is really applicable to existing public debt. And there is very little justification for incurring debt for benefits that are purely a matter of present consumption.

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